Answer 25

25.   Choice A is the correct answer.  The five P's of Lichen Planus are:  planar, polygonal, pruritic, purple, and papular

Question 25

25.  Which of the following are not one of the 5 P's of Lichen Planus?

A.  Pain
B.  Purple
C.  Pruritic
D.  Polygonal

Answer 24

24.  Choice C is the correct answer.  Dishidrotic eczema in acute phase can have a vesicular appearance.  It differs from herpes in that it is not on an erythematous base and typically herpetic ulcers are more pink.  Acyclovir and acyclovir cream would be appropriate for herpetic infections.  Bactrim would be appropriate for bacterial infections especially staph infections.  Triamcinolone would be most appropriate in this case.

Question 24

24.  What is the best management option for the skin disorder depicted in the photograph listed below?

A.  Acyclovir
B.  Bactrim
C.  Triamcinolone cream
D.  Acyclovir cream

Answer 23

23. Choice D is the correct answer.  Acanthosis Nigricans, a diffuse thickening and hyperpigmented area of skin is caused by hyperinsulinemia, obesity, endocrine disorders, and malignancy.  Usually on the axillae and bodily folds.  It is caused by a over active secretion of pituitary peptide or non specific growth effect of hyperinsulinemia

Question 23

23.  Which of the following medical conditions have not been implicated in the skin condition listed below in the photograph?

A.  Hyperinsulinemia
B.  Obesity
C.  Malignancy
D.  Sunburn

Answer 22

22.  Choice A is the correct answer.  Vitiligo is actually characterized by the complete absence of melanocytes.  This is what causes the white macules.  Management is with topical steroids, UVA and systemic UVA.  It is associated with thyroid disease and other medical conditions.

Question 22

22.  Which of the following is not true of vitiligo?

A.  It is characterized by the development of white macules and the complete presence of melanocytes
B.  Management includes sunscreens and cosmetic cover up
C.  Repigmentation can be attempted  with topical steroids, UVA and systemic UVA
D.  It can be associated with thyroid disease

Answer 21

21.  Choice B is the correct answer.  Stage I ulcers just have non blanchable erythema with no skin breakdown.  Stage II ulcers have some loss of the dermis with an open wound and have a red area in the center.  There is no slough.  Stage III is full thickness.  There maybe subcutaneous tissue visible but there is no muscle, bone, or tendons visible.  Stage IV ulcers are full thickness ulcers with bone, muscle, and tendons exposed.

Question 21

21.  Your patient is a 83 year old female that presents to the ER with the skin ulcer listed below.  Please choose the most correct stage of the ulcer listed below:

A.  Stage I
B.  Stage II
C.  Stage III
D.  Stage IV